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Is Jesus Called God?

Time after time in the Scriptures, Jesus is referred to as the Messiah, the Son of God. There are only a handfull of verses that even seem to call Jesus God, and most of those are questionable on textual and grammatical grounds. Only two verses unquestionably call Jesus God, and we shall see in what sense they do so. The vast amount of Scriptures refer to Jesus as the Son of God, though.

One passage of Scripture that seems to say that God became man is highly questionable based on textual evidence. I Timothy 3:16 reads in the KJV, “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.” It is widely recognized and acknowledged that the word for God, Theos, is not in most Greek manuscripts. It is, in most MSS, either ho (which), or hos (who). According to A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the late Dr. Bruce Metzger, the neuter relative pronoun ho would have most likely arisen as a scribal correction of the masculine pronoun hos, in order for it to agree with musterion, mystery. Dr. Metzger writes:

No uncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports Theos; all ancient versions presuppose hos or ho; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century testifies to the reading Theos.

The reading Theos may have arisen accidentally, if a scribe mistook hos for the standard abbreviation for Theos which looks similar, but with a line through the O and a line over the top. Or it may have been added deliberately. The note on this verse in the NAB reads:

Who: the reference is to Christ, who is himself “the mystery of our devotion.” Some predominantly Western manuscripts read “which,” harmonizing the gender of the pronoun with that of the Greek word for mystery; many later (eighth/ninth century on), predominantly Byzantine manuscripts read “God,” possibly for theological reasons.

Other English versions render it as follows:

ASV
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness; He who was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the spirit, Seen of angels, Preached among the nations, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory.

NAB
Undeniably great is the mystery of devotion, Who was manifested in the flesh, vindicated in the spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed to the Gentiles, believed in throughout the world, taken up in glory.

NASB
By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh, Was vindicated in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Proclaimed among the nations, Believed on in the world, Taken up in glory.

NET
And we all agree, our religion contains amazing revelation: He was revealed in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among Gentiles, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

The passage is referring either to Jesus or the “mystery of godliness” being revealed, vindicated, seen, etc. But it does not say that God was manifested in the flesh. (Click here for the NET Bible Commentary on this verse.)

There are also a few other verses that are questionable. John 1:18 in the NRSV reads, “No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son, who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.” However the KJV reads, “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” Most manuscripts support this reading; the substitution of “God” for “Son” is based on a variant reading in Alexandrian manuscripts.

In Acts 20:28 it seems to say that God purchased the church with his own blood which would imply that Jesus was God in the flesh. The KJV (in agreement with NASB) reads, “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.” But the NRSV renders it, “to shepherd the church of God that he obtained with the blood of his own Son.” The Greek phrase “his own” could be understood either way, grammatically.

A few passages have ambiguous wording. Romans 9:5 reads in the KJV, “Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.” It is ambiguous in this wording. Should it be read as “Christ, who is God over all” as the NET has it, or as “God who is over all be blessed forever” as the RSV puts it? Even Trinitarian scholars are divided over which is the correct meaning.

Another verse is worded the same in most versions but can be understood in more than one way. I John 5:20 reads (in the KJV), “And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.” Does the word “this” refer to Jesus Christ or to “him that is true” which is God? It is the Greek word houtos and is quite flexible. Again, even Trinitarian scholars are divided on this question.

Three verses mention God and Jesus together, but some versions word it as if they were identical. II Thessalonians 1:12 in the KJV reads, “That the name of our Lord Jesus Christ may be glorified in you, and ye in him, according to the grace of our God and the Lord Jesus Christ.” But the NAB reads, “…in accord with the grace of our God and Lord Jesus Christ.” Similarly, Titus 2:13 reads in the KJV, “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.” This could be understood either way, but the NASB renders it, “the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus” while the NAB words it, “the glory of the great God and of our savior, Jesus Christ.” And also II Peter 1:1 reads in the KJV, “Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.” Again this could go either way, but the NASB reads, “the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ” while the ASV reads “the righteousness of our God and the Saviour Jesus Christ.” Since these verses can legitimately be read either way, the preferred reading will depend on one’s preformed opinions. They do not in and of themselves prove that Jesus is God.

The above seven verses are questionable, as mentioned above, and cannot unequivocally be said to call Jesus God. Sometimes the fact that Jesus is called “Lord” is taken to mean that he is God. But the word lord can mean any superior. Sarah called her husband Abraham “lord” according to I Peter 3:6. Especially in the Old Testament it was common to address a superior as “my lord.” The Old Testament verse quoted more frequently in the New Testament than any other is Psalm 110:1, in which YHVH addresses someone called “my lord.”

Psalm 110:
1 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

This verse is quoted or alluded to in the New Testament more than any other Old Testament verse, and is recognized as referring to the Messiah. It is frequently claimed that the second word “Lord” is the word Adonai, a divine title, and thus is calling the Messiah God. However, it is not the word Adonai, but adoni, which occurs 195 times in the Old Testament and always refers to a human superior, or occasionally an angel. It is never used of God. The Messiah was called David’s lord, not his God (Matthew 22:42-45).

There are only two verses that refer to Jesus as God for sure, and they must be considered.

Heb 1:
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

John 20:
27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

The word “God” first of all is not used exclusively for YHWH, the Creator. The Hebrew word elohim, is most often translated “God,” but is also translated other ways at times, such as “mighty,” in Genesis 23:6, 30:8, and Exodus 9:28. It is even used of false gods, in Judges 11:24 and I Samuel 5:7. The Greek word Theos is also not limited to the Creator. II Corinthians 4:4 calls the devil “the god of this world.”

Elohim is often used to refer to people, especially, “divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power” (Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament by Brown, Driver, and Briggs, pp. 42, 43). When it is used in this way, it is understood that they are in an exalted position as representatives of God. It is used this way of Moses in Exodus 4:16 and 7:1, and of the judges in several instances. Elohim is translated “judge” or “judges” in five places, and it is translated “gods” referring to the judges in Exodus 22:28, as well as Psalm 82:6-8 (which Jesus refers to in John 10:34).

When used of Moses, it says that he will be as God in Exodus 4:16, but the word “as” is not used in Exodus 7:1. It says, “I have made thee a god to Pharaoh” and describes the relationship between Moses and Aaron. Referring to the judges in Psalm 82, God says, “You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. Nevertheless you will die like men.” In the other places it calls the Judges “gods,” as with all the instances where elohim is used of exalted humans, it is clear from the context that it is not saying these people are YHWH the Creator.

In Hebrews 1:8 and John 20:28 the Greek is O Theos, literally “the God.” It is sometimes argued that this marks a distinction between calling others “a god” or “gods” and “The God,” the Creator. But Hebrews 1:8 is quoting Psalm 45, where “O God” (Hebrew elohim, Greek o theos in the LXX) is used of the exalted human king, according to verse 1. This shows that, like elohim, it is not limited to only YHWH the Creator.

As further proof, the next verse indicates that that king has a God himself: “Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.” This is also quoted in Hebrews. If the king, called “O God” in verse 8, is said to have a God in verse 9, then clearly it is not saying that the king is God the Creator. This usage was understood in Jewish culture, and no one in that culture ever considered it to mean that God Himself would literally come down to earth in the form of a man.

After Thomas calls Jesus “my Lord and my God” in John 20:28, we then read:

John 20:
29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

Again, the usage of the word “God” in this sense was understood. No one, including Thomas, had ever considered the idea that God would come to earth in a physical body. Jesus’ resurrection appearances proved, not that he was God, but that he was the Messiah. And John immediately emphasized this in the next few verses. “These are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God”

So when Jesus is called “God” in these two instances, it is in the secondary sense of an exalted representative of God. Jesus referred to this in John 10 when the Pharisees accused him of claiming to be God. But he clarifies his statement to remove any question of whom he claim to be.

John 10:
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

Jesus quotes the above-mentioned verse from Psalm 82:6, showing that people could be called gods. He then uses it to establish that it was not blasphemy for him to claim to be the Son of God. If he were indeed YHWH, the Creator, this would have been the perfect opportunity to say so. But he refuted their accusation and reiterated that he was the Son of God.

He is clearly an exalted person, and not a “mere” man as many Trinitarians claim that he must be if he is not God. But Biblical Unitarians (those who believe that God is one person rather than a trinity, not to be confused with Unitarian Universalists) believe him to be the only-begotten Son of God, the Messiah, the central focus of all creation and the perfect representation of his Father. One of the most famous prophecies of the Messiah is often used to prove that he is God, but in fact it actually illustrates his exalted position as God’s coming King of the Kingdom. This occurs in the oft-quoted Isaiah 9:6.

Isaiah 9:
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

First of all, it doesn’t say he would be God, it says that this would be the meaning of his name. The name Israel contains El, another name for God, and literally means “God prevails.” The name Isaiah includes the divine name Jah and means “Jah has saved.” There are many Hebrew names that have God as part of them. This does not make these people God.

Secondly, the name “God” applied to the coming Messiah is not meant to imply that he would be God the creator. The phrase “mighty God” combines El with gibbor which means strong or mighty. Like the name Elohim, this phrase can be used of mighty rulers other than God Himself. It refers to human rulers in Ezekiel 32:21, and is translated “The strong among the mighty” in the KJV, “The strong among the mighty ones” in the NASB, and “mighty chiefs” in the NRSV. The Messiah would be a mighty ruler because of God’s power, and “the government shall be upon his shoulder.”

As for calling him “everlasting father,” the word for “everlasting” is a variation of the word for “age.” The phrase literally means “father of the coming age.” It must be remembered that not even in Trinitarian theology is the Messiah ever referred to as “Father.” If anything, he is called “God the Son.” Even the Roman Catholic Douay version translates this phrase as “the Father of the world to come.” To call someone the father of something is a common Hebraic idiom referring to one who started it. Jabal is called “the father of such as dwell in tents, and of such as have cattle” in Genesis 4:20, and Jubal is called “the father of all such as handle the harp and organ” in the following verse. Abraham is called “the father of all them that believe” in Romans 4:11. The coming Messiah was called the Father of the Coming Age because he would be the one who initiates or inaugurates it.

So he is called the mighty ruler and the father of the age to come here. He is called the Son of God in many, many places, and only called God twice for sure, and they are in a representational sense. How does he represent God without being God? The concept of agency is an important concept to understand, and it will be dealt with next.

To Be Continued…